Q1: Which of the following lapses on dissolution of Lok Sabha?
1) A pending Money Bill in Rajya Sabha
2) A pending Joint Committee (JPC) report on a Bill
3) A pending No-Confidence Motion in Lok Sabha
4) A pending Proclamation under Article 356 awaiting Parliamentary approval
A) Only two
B) Only three
C) All four
D) Only one

Q2: Identify the correct pair(s) for devices of Parliamentary control:
1) Calling Attention—admissible in both Houses by Rule, answers by concerned Minister
2) Short Duration Discussion—no formal motion is moved, no voting
3) Half-an-Hour Discussion—follows a fully answered question needing elucidation
4) Adjournment Motion—permitted in both Houses
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q3: Money Bill certification under Article 110:
A) Can be questioned in court after the Bill becomes an Act
B) Is final and cannot be challenged in any court
C) Can be revised by Rajya Sabha within 14 days
D) Requires Speaker and Chairman’s joint certification

Q4: Which statement on Speaker’s casting vote is correct?
A) Speaker votes at first instance and has no casting vote
B) Speaker does not vote at first instance but has casting vote in case of tie
C) Speaker always abstains; no casting vote exists
D) Speaker votes at first instance; if tie, Bill fails automatically

Q5: Consider Bills and lapse on LS dissolution:
1) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha lapses
2) A Bill pending in Lok Sabha but not passed lapses
3) A Bill passed by both Houses but pending President’s assent lapses
4) A Bill returned by President for reconsideration lapses
A) Only one correct
B) Only two correct
C) Only three correct
D) All four correct

Q6: On a Money Bill, Rajya Sabha may:
A) Reject it with a two-thirds majority
B) Return it with recommendations within 14 days
C) Refer it to a Joint Sitting
D) Extend the 14-day period by motion

Q7: Privileges: Which is true?
A) Breach of privilege can be raised only by members against members
B) Contempt of Parliament includes obstructing a witness summoned by a committee
C) Privileges are identical in both Houses by constitutional text
D) Publication of expunged remarks in media is not a breach

Q8: Consider Parliamentary Committees:
1) PAC is chaired by a member of Opposition by convention
2) Estimates Committee is headed by a Rajya Sabha member
3) Department-Related Standing Committees exist for each ministry one-to-one
4) Committee on Privileges is a Financial Committee
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) None

Q9: Starred vs Unstarred Questions:
A) Starred require oral answer; one supplementary per member only
B) Unstarred require written answer; no supplementaries
C) Short Notice Question requires 3 days’ notice and Chairman’s consent in RS
D) Zero Hour questions are listed with prior notice in the day’s business

Q10: Joint sitting under Article 108 is NOT available for:
A) Ordinary Bills
B) Constitutional Amendment Bills
C) Money Bills
D) Both B and C

Q11: Identify correct pairs on Financial Business:
1) Vote on Account—Interim grant before Budget is passed
2) Guillotine—Clubbed voting of outstanding Demands for Grants on last day
3) Cut Motions—Admissible on Charged Expenditure
4) Token Cut—For ventilating specific grievance (Rs 100 reduction)
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q12: Disqualification under Tenth Schedule (anti-defection):
A) A nominated member cannot be disqualified under Tenth Schedule
B) Split of one-third is recognized as valid defense
C) Whip violation in RS cannot trigger defection
D) Merger of original party with two-thirds of legislators is protected

Q13: Ordinances and Parliament:
A) A disapproved Ordinance can be repromulgated immediately during same session
B) Ordinance ceases to operate at the end of six weeks from reassembly unless approved
C) Ordinance has lesser force than an Act
D) President cannot withdraw an Ordinance before six weeks

Q14: Parliamentary control over delegated legislation is exercised through:
1) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
2) Rules Committee
3) Committee on Government Assurances
4) Business Advisory Committee
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q15: On a motion of no-confidence in Lok Sabha:
A) Requires 50 members to admit; simple majority to pass
B) Can be moved in Rajya Sabha against Council of Ministers
C) If passed, Council of Ministers must resign; PM may advise dissolution instead
D) Admissible only with President’s prior approval

Q16: Which statement on ‘Question Hour’ is incorrect?
A) It is the first hour of a sitting
B) It was suspended during some pandemic sessions
C) It exists by convention; not mentioned in Constitution
D) It cannot be curtailed by the presiding officer

Q17: Finance Bill vs Money Bill:
A) All Finance Bills are Money Bills
B) All Money Bills are Finance Bills
C) Finance Bill (Category I) may be a Money Bill if it contains only Article 110 matters
D) Finance Bill (Category II) is also a Money Bill

Q18: Regarding Adjournment vs Adjournment Sine Die:
A) Adjournment ends a session; Adjournment Sine Die ends a sitting for that day only
B) Adjournment suspends a sitting; Adjournment Sine Die suspends without naming a day
C) Both end a session
D) Both require President’s order

Q19: Which is correct on Prorogation?
A) It ends a session and causes all pending Bills to lapse in that House
B) It ends a session but does not cause lapsing of Bills
C) It can be done only after Cabinet recommendation to President
D) It requires a joint message to both Houses

Q20: Parliamentary Privileges include:
1) Freedom from court proceedings for speeches in House
2) Right to publish debates and proceedings with absolute privilege
3) Freedom from arrest in civil cases during session
4) Absolute immunity from criminal liability for actions within House
A) Only two
B) Only three
C) All four
D) Only one

Q21: Motion types—identify incorrect pair:
A) Censure Motion—specific charges; can be moved in both Houses
B) Privilege Motion—breach of privilege by member or outsider
C) Calling Attention—taken up with prior notice; Minister gives statement
D) No-Day-Yet-Named Motion—taken up on a fixed future date by rule

Q22: ‘Point of Order’ may be raised to:
A) Introduce a new motion without notice
B) Correct a procedural irregularity under the Rules
C) Seek statement from PM
D) Amend a Bill mid-debate substantively

Q23: Laxmikanth distinctions—Identify correct mapping:
1) Quorum—10% of total membership in each House
2) ‘Leader of Opposition’—statutorily recognized if party has at least 10% of total LS seats
3) BAC—decides time allocation of business
4) Rules Committee—considers matters of procedure and conduct of business
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q24: Which statement on ‘Point of Information’ is correct?
A) A member can interrupt a Minister at will to seek data
B) It exists expressly in Constitution
C) It’s allowed only with Chair’s permission and is not a right
D) It entails voting at the end

Q25: Subordinate legislation oversight—Which is incorrect?
A) Laying procedures may be simple laying/negative/affirmative
B) ‘Negative resolution’ means instrument operates unless annulled
C) ‘Affirmative resolution’ means instrument operates only after explicit approval
D) Laying before only one House is always sufficient

Q26: ‘Rule 377’ (Lok Sabha) allows:
A) Raising matters of urgent public importance without prior notice
B) Raising matters not points of order, through written notice for short statements
C) Moving censure without a day’s notice
D) Automatically seeking a Minister’s reply

Q27: Parliamentary privileges are defined:
A) Exhaustively in the Constitution
B) By statutes alone
C) By Constitution (Arts 105/194) and by House rules, precedents, and judicial interpretation
D) Only by conventions; no constitutional basis

Q28: Committee jurisdiction—Which is correctly matched?
1) PAC—Examines Appropriation Accounts and CAG reports
2) Estimates Committee—Suggests economy and efficiency; examines post-expenditure outcomes
3) Committee on Public Undertakings—Examines autonomous NGOs receiving grants
4) DRSCs—Scrutinize Demands for Grants of Ministries
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q29: Budget process—Which is incorrect?
A) Charged expenditure is not submitted to vote of LS
B) Consolidated Fund expenditure is fully votable
C) Vote on Account authorizes withdrawal for part of the year
D) Appropriation Bill includes both voted and charged expenditure

Q30: Lapsing and committees—Which is true?
A) LS dissolution dissolves DRSCs immediately
B) Reports of committees submitted to RS become infructuous automatically
C) Bills referred to committees lapse with LS dissolution unless RS-origin and pending there
D) PAC ceases to exist on prorogation

Q31: President’s Address under Article 87:
A) Must occur at the commencement of each session
B) Must occur at the first session of each year and first session after a general election
C) Requires prior approval by RS only
D) Does not admit a Motion of Thanks

Q32: ‘Closure’ is a procedural device to:
A) End the session immediately
B) End debate on a matter and put it to vote
C) Remove a Member from the House
D) Prevent introduction of a Bill

Q33: Identify the incorrect pair on legislative stages in LS:
A) First Reading—Introduction
B) Second Reading—Consideration in detail and clause-by-clause
C) Third Reading—General discussion
D) Bill transmission—After third reading if passed

Q34: Parliamentary Secretaries at Union level:
A) Are part of CoM under Article 75
B) Are ministers of state by another title
C) Have been contentious due to office of profit/size cap issues
D) Are constitutionally mandated posts

Q35: Identify the correct statement on ‘Whip’:
A) Issued only in Lok Sabha by the ruling party
B) 3-line whip indicates highest importance and generally enforces voting
C) Disobeying any whip automatically disqualifies under Tenth Schedule
D) Whips are creatures of the Constitution

Q36: Question Hour—Which is accurate?
A) Starred Question permits only one supplementary
B) Speaker/Chairman may club similar questions
C) Short Notice Questions require minimum 7 days’ notice in both Houses
D) Unstarred Questions allow unlimited supplementaries

Q37: ‘Delegated legislation’ control includes:
1) Pre-publication and consultation
2) Laying before Parliament with negative/affirmative resolution
3) Judicial review for ultra vires
4) PAC examination of policy merits before laying
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q38: A Private Member’s Bill:
A) Requires President’s recommendation if it involves expenditure or taxation
B) Can be a Money Bill certified by Speaker
C) Cannot amend the Constitution
D) Cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha

Q39: ‘Privilege of freedom from arrest’ for MPs:
A) Is absolute in criminal cases during session
B) Applies in civil cases during session and 40 days before/after
C) Bars arrest for any reason when House is sitting
D) Extends to MPs’ personal staff by default

Q40: Which pair on ‘Budget documents’ is incorrect?
A) Annual Financial Statement—Constitutionally mandated statement under Article 112
B) Demand for Grants—Votable heads of expenditure
C) Appropriation Bill—Seeks approval for raising revenue via taxation
D) Finance Bill—Gives effect to taxation proposals

Q41: Which statement on ‘Guillotine’ is correct?
A) Used only in Rajya Sabha for Demands for Grants
B) Enables clubbed voting on remaining Demands without discussion on last day allotted
C) Used for all Bills at end of session
D) Requires unanimous consent of Business Advisory Committee

Q42: ‘Motion of Thanks’ to President’s Address:
A) If amended and adopted, it has no consequence for the Government
B) Rajya Sabha does not consider it
C) If defeated, it implies loss of majority support
D) It is taken up only in Lok Sabha

Q43: On disqualification decisions under Tenth Schedule:
A) Decided by Election Commission
B) Decided by Speaker/Chairman; subject to judicial review
C) Decided by President
D) Decided by Leader of the House

Q44: ‘Question to the Private Member’ can be asked:
A) Never; questions are only to Ministers
B) Only if Speaker permits and relates to a Bill/resolution tabled by that member
C) Only in Rajya Sabha
D) Only via Half-an-Hour Discussion

Q45: Consider ‘Short Duration Discussion’ (Rule 193 LS):
1) No formal motion is moved
2) No voting
3) Minister must reply
4) Ends with a resolution
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Q46: Which is true about ‘Calling Attention’?
A) It permits discussion and voting
B) It is admissible in RS; LS uses similar device by convention
C) It is in the Constitution
D) It can be used to move a privilege motion directly

Q47: On breach of privilege by publication:
A) Only House publications have absolute protection
B) Newspapers reproducing House proceedings under authority enjoy qualified privilege
C) Publishing expunged remarks is protected if sourced from a member
D) Social media posts by MPs are automatically privileged

Q48: ‘Message from one House to the other’ is used to:
A) Summon the other House
B) Communicate amendments/decisions on a Bill between Houses
C) Request a joint sitting directly
D) Seek a Money Bill certification from the Speaker

Q49: Identify the correct statements on ‘Finance Bill (II)’:
1) It contains provisions other than those in Article 110 but related to taxation
2) It cannot be a Money Bill
3) Rajya Sabha has equal powers on it as an Ordinary Bill
4) It requires prior recommendation of the President to introduce
A) Only two
B) Only three
C) All four
D) Only one

Q50: Which of the following about ‘Suspension of Question Hour’ is correct?
A) It cannot be suspended under any circumstance
B) It can be suspended by presiding officer or House decision due to extraordinary situations
C) It requires President’s order
D) It requires Leader of Opposition’s consent