Q1: Which of the following correctly distinguishes Fundamental Rights from Directive Principles?
A) Only Fundamental Rights are part of the basic structure of the Constitution
B) Fundamental Rights are justiciable while DPSPs are not enforceable by courts
C) DPSPs can override Fundamental Rights as per Article 37
D) Both FRs and DPSPs require special majority for amendment

Q2: A state law prohibits non-residents from purchasing agricultural land. Under which Article can this be challenged?
A) Article 14 (Equality before law)
B) Article 19(1)(e) (Freedom to reside anywhere)
C) Article 19(1)(g) (Freedom of profession)
D) Article 21 (Right to life and liberty)

Q3: Consider the following statements about Article 31C:
1. It was added by the 25th Amendment to protect laws implementing Article 39(b) and (c)
2. The Supreme Court struck down its second part in Kesavananda Bharati case
3. The 42nd Amendment expanded it to cover all DPSPs
How many are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q4: In Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court held that:
A) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights under any circumstances
B) DPSPs have supremacy over Fundamental Rights
C) FRs and DPSPs together form the core of the Constitution's commitment to social revolution
D) Article 368 itself cannot be amended

Q5: Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?
A) To protect and improve the natural environment
B) To provide opportunities for education to children between 6-14 years
C) To respect the Constitution and its ideals
D) To safeguard public property

Q6: Assertion (A): The Right to Privacy is explicitly mentioned in Article 21.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy judgment held privacy as a fundamental right.
A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
B) A is false but R is true
C) A is true but R is false
D) Both A and R are false

Q7: Which of the following scenarios would NOT violate Article 14?
A) Different punishment for same offense based on gender
B) Different tax rates for different income slabs
C) Separate queues for men and women based on tradition
D) Excluding women from certain job categories without justification

Q8: Under Article 19(2), which restriction on freedom of speech is NOT constitutionally valid?
A) Restrictions in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India
B) Restrictions for maintaining public order
C) Restrictions to prevent hurt to religious sentiments
D) Restrictions in the interest of friendly relations with foreign states

Q9: Match the following landmark cases with their constitutional principles:
1. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India - Article 21 includes procedural due process
2. Golak Nath v State of Punjab - Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
3. I.R. Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu - Judicial review of laws in Ninth Schedule
How many pairs are correctly matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q10: Which Article empowers Parliament to exclude certain areas from Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 33
B) Article 34
C) Article 35
D) Article 368

Q11: The doctrine of 'eclipse' in constitutional law means:
A) Fundamental Rights are suspended during emergency
B) Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with FRs become void
C) Pre-constitutional laws remain dormant until inconsistency is removed
D) Constitutional amendments cannot be challenged

Q12: Consider the following about environmental rights:
1. Article 48A is a Directive Principle about environmental protection
2. Article 51A(g) makes environmental protection a Fundamental Duty
3. Right to clean environment is recognized under Article 21
Which statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All three

Q13: Which constitutional amendment procedure requires ratification by state legislatures?
A) Adding a new Fundamental Right
B) Changing the procedure for President's election
C) Abolishing the Rajya Sabha
D) Amending the Preamble

Q14: The 'basic structure doctrine' was established to prevent:
A) Judicial activism by the Supreme Court
B) Misuse of emergency provisions
C) Parliamentary sovereignty from destroying constitutional identity
D) State governments from violating Fundamental Rights

Q15: Assertion (A): Article 32 is called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
Reason (R): It provides the right to approach the Supreme Court directly for FR enforcement.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R doesn't explain A
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q16: Which of the following is a 'positive right' rather than a 'negative right'?
A) Article 14 (Equality before law)
B) Article 19 (Freedom of speech)
C) Article 21A (Right to Education)
D) Article 25 (Freedom of religion)

Q17: In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the right to livelihood is part of Article 21?
A) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
B) Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation
C) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v Union of India
D) Francis Coralie Mullin v Administrator UT Delhi

Q18: Match the following DPSPs with their categories (as per NCERT classification):
1. Article 39 - Economic and Socialistic principles
2. Article 44 - Gandhian principles
3. Article 46 - Liberal-Intellectual principles
How many are correctly matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q19: The 97th Constitutional Amendment (2011) relates to:
A) Right to Education as Fundamental Right
B) Cooperative societies as part of right to form associations
C) Making Hindi the official language
D) Women's reservation in legislatures

Q20: Consider statements about Article 21:
1. It applies only to Indian citizens
2. It includes right to die with dignity
3. It has been interpreted to include right to speedy trial
Which are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) All three

Q21: Which amendment procedure is used for most Fundamental Rights amendments?
A) Simple majority of Parliament
B) Special majority of Parliament only
C) Special majority plus state ratification
D) Constitutional convention

Q22: The concept of 'reasonable classification' under Article 14 requires:
A) Intelligible differentia only
B) Rational nexus to the object only
C) Both intelligible differentia and rational nexus
D) Constitutional mandate in specific article

Q23: Which Article deals with the right of minorities to establish educational institutions?
A) Article 29
B) Article 30
C) Article 25
D) Article 28

Q24: The 42nd Amendment's changes to Fundamental Duties included:
A) Adding all 11 duties at once
B) Adding 10 duties initially, with 11th added later
C) Adding duties only for adults
D) Making duties justiciable

Q25: In K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court:
A) Upheld Aadhaar as mandatory for all services
B) Declared right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21
C) Struck down Aadhaar completely
D) Made privacy a Directive Principle

Q26: Which constitutional amendment cannot be passed by Parliament?
A) Abolishing the Supreme Court
B) Adding new Fundamental Rights
C) Changing the federal structure
D) Amending emergency provisions

Q27: The Ninth Schedule was added to protect:
A) Emergency provisions from judicial review
B) Land reform laws from Fundamental Rights challenges
C) Parliamentary privileges from court intervention
D) State reorganization acts from constitutional scrutiny

Q28: Consider the following about writs:
1. Habeas corpus can be issued against private persons
2. Mandamus cannot be issued against the President
3. Prohibition is issued to superior courts
Which statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All three

Q29: The 'Kesavananda Bharati doctrine' primarily establishes:
A) Judicial supremacy over Parliament
B) Limits on Parliament's amending power
C) Fundamental Rights as unchangeable
D) Supreme Court's constituent power

Q30: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and makes its practice:
A) A constitutional wrong only
B) Both a constitutional wrong and criminal offense
C) A civil wrong with compensation
D) A directive to be implemented by states

Q31: Which case established that constitutional amendments can be challenged in court?
A) Shankari Prasad v Union of India
B) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan
C) Golak Nath v State of Punjab
D) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala

Q32: The 'right to be forgotten' in Indian jurisprudence is derived from:
A) Article 19(1)(a) - Freedom of expression
B) Article 21 - Right to privacy
C) Article 14 - Equality before law
D) Article 32 - Constitutional remedies

Q33: Match the following DPSP articles with their content:
1. Article 40 - Village Panchayats
2. Article 47 - Prohibition of intoxicating drinks
3. Article 48 - Cow protection
How many are correctly matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q34: The constitutional validity of reservation in promotion was upheld in:
A) Indra Sawhney v Union of India
B) M. Nagaraj v Union of India
C) Ashoka Kumar Thakur v Union of India
D) Both A and B

Q35: Which Article provides that no person can be compelled to be a witness against himself?
A) Article 20(3)
B) Article 21
C) Article 22(1)
D) Article 14

Q36: The phrase 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 has been interpreted to mean:
A) Any procedure prescribed by law is valid
B) Procedure must be fair, just and reasonable
C) Only procedure established by Constitution is valid
D) Courts cannot examine the procedure

Q37: Consider the following about constitutional amendment process:
1. Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced by private members
2. President cannot return the bill for reconsideration
3. There is no time limit for state ratification
Which are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All three

Q38: The 'doctrine of severability' in constitutional law means:
A) Invalid laws are completely struck down
B) Valid portions of partially invalid laws can be retained
C) Constitutional provisions cannot be separated
D) Amendments cannot be partially struck down

Q39: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Fundamental Rights?
A) They are justiciable
B) They are available against private parties
C) They can be suspended during emergency
D) They are amendable by Parliament

Q40: The concept of 'colorable legislation' refers to:
A) Laws made in good faith by legislature
B) Laws made without proper authority but appearing valid
C) Laws that discriminate based on color or race
D) Emergency laws with temporary validity

Q41: In Vishaka v State of Rajasthan, the Supreme Court:
A) Recognized sexual harassment as violation of Article 21
B) Mandated legislation on domestic violence
C) Struck down discriminatory employment laws
D) Upheld gender-based reservations

Q42: The 'triple talaq' was declared unconstitutional primarily under:
A) Article 14 (Equality)
B) Article 15 (Gender discrimination)
C) Article 21 (Life and dignity)
D) All of the above

Q43: Which amendment added the word 'Socialist' to the Preamble?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 25th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment

Q44: The right to information was recognized as part of:
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 21
C) Both A and B
D) Article 32

Q45: Consider the following about Article 356:
1. It can be used to dismiss state governments
2. Its misuse led to S.R. Bommai guidelines
3. It cannot be challenged in court
Which statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All three

Q46: The 'right to be heard' is part of:
A) Natural justice principles
B) Article 21 due process
C) Fair trial guarantee
D) All of the above

Q47: Which case expanded Article 21 to include the right to education?
A) Mohini Jain v State of Karnataka
B) Unnikrishnan v State of Andhra Pradesh
C) Both A and B
D) T.M.A. Pai Foundation case

Q48: The concept of 'constitutional morality' was emphasized in:
A) Kesavananda Bharati case
B) Navtej Singh Johar case (Section 377)
C) K.S. Puttaswamy case (Privacy)
D) All recent constitutional cases

Q49: The 'basic structure' includes all EXCEPT:
A) Supremacy of Constitution
B) Democratic governance
C) Particular form of property right
D) Judicial review

Q50: Which recent development affects the federal structure requiring potential constitutional amendment?
A) GST implementation
B) Simultaneous elections proposal
C) Digital governance initiatives
D) Climate change legislation