Q1: Consider the following about the Constituent Assembly:
1. It was created under the Cabinet Mission plan.
2. Princely States were allotted seats and joined voluntarily.
3. Members were elected through direct elections.
How many are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q2: Match the following sources and features:
1. Cabinet Responsibility — Britain — Adopted in India
2. Judicial Review — USA — Adopted in India
3. Fundamental Duties — USSR — Adopted in India
How many rows are correctly matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q3: Statement I: India has single citizenship for all.
Statement II: USA has dual citizenship.
Statement III: The UK has single citizenship too.
Which is correct?
A) Both II and III correct and explain I
B) Both II and III correct but only one explains I
C) Only one of II/III is correct and explains I
D) Neither II nor III is correct

Q4: Assertion (A): India adapted features from multiple world constitutions.
Reason (R): Parliamentary system and Fundamental Rights are both from the USA.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q5: Citizenship provisions are covered in which Part of the Constitution?
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part I
D) Part IV

Q6: Union Territories:
1. All UTs have a legislative assembly.
2. President directly administers all UTs.
3. Parliament legislates on any subject for UTs.
How many are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q7: Statement I: Preamble is part of the Constitution.
Statement II: Ideals 'Liberty, Equality, Fraternity' are from the US Constitution.
Statement III: Preamble was amended by the 42nd Amendment.
Which is correct?
A) Both II/III correct and explain I
B) Both II/III correct but only one explains I
C) Only one of II/III correct and explains I
D) Neither II nor III is correct

Q8: Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws on citizenship?
A) Article 5
B) Article 11
C) Article 12
D) Article 370

Q9: Which country’s constitution was NOT an inspiration for Indian federalism?
A) USA
B) Canada
C) USSR
D) Australia

Q10: Directive Principles – Ireland – Adopted; Procedure for Amendment – South Africa – Adopted; Impeachment of President – France – Adopted.
How many are matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q11: Which Article defines 'State' for Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 11
B) Article 12
C) Article 13
D) Article 14

Q12: Assertion (A): The Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted under Article 11.
Reason (R): The Constitution gives all detailed procedures for citizenship.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q13: Articles 1, 2, 6 correspond to:
A) Union of States, Admission of new States, Citizenship by migration
B) Admission of States, Union of States, Citizenship
C) Citizenship, Admission of States, Union of States
D) None of the above

Q14: Statement I: Muslim League representatives were part of CA.
Statement II: The Assembly debated language extensively.
Statement III: Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee.
Which is correct?
A) Both II/III correct and explain I
B) Both II/III correct but not explain I
C) Only one of II/III correct and explains I
D) Neither II/III is correct

Q15: Which Schedules were part of the original Constitution?
1. First
2. Eighth
3. Eleventh
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q16: Which statements about the Preamble are correct?
(a) It is justiciable
(b) It can be amended
(c) It reflects basic structure doctrine
A) II and III only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All three

Q17: 'Jus soli' means:
A) Citizenship by birth
B) Citizenship by parentage
C) Citizenship by marriage
D) Citizenship by naturalization

Q18: Match and find correct:
1. Fundamental Duties — 42nd Amendment
2. 'Secular' in Preamble — 1976
3. Dual citizenship — USA
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) None

Q19: Which statement is correct?
A) British Constitution is written and flexible
B) Australia inspired concurrent list
C) Indian Constitution is longest
D) B and C

Q20: Which provision up to Article 12 makes FRs enforceable against 'State'?
A) Article 10
B) Article 12
C) Article 6
D) Article 9

Q21: Assertion (A): 'We, the people of India' in the Preamble emphasizes popular sovereignty.
Reason (R): Sovereignty arises from the will of the State.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q22: Match the following rows:
1. UTs – Article 239 – Administered by President
2. State boundaries – Article 3 – Parliament's authority
3. Article 12 – Includes government corporations
How many are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q23: Statement I: NHRC is a constitutional body.
Statement II: Eighth Schedule lists official Indian languages.
Statement III: Fifth and Sixth Schedules relate to tribal areas.
Which are correct?
A) II and III only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All three

Q24: The parliamentary system of government in India is borrowed from:
A) USA
B) France
C) UK
D) South Africa

Q25: Statement I: Original Constitution listed 14 languages in Eighth Schedule.
Statement II: Goa was a UT at commencement.
Statement III: J&K was a State from the beginning.
Which are correct?
A) II and III only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All three

Q26: Minimum age for citizenship by registration:
A) 18
B) 21
C) 25
D) 16

Q27: Assertion (A): The Preamble is the source of constitutional authority.
Reason (R): Article 368 cannot amend the Preamble.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q28: Match the following:
1. Article 8 – Overseas citizenship
2. Article 10 – Continuance of rights
3. Article 12 – Definition of State
How many correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q29: Which feature did India NOT borrow from Canada?
A) Strong Centre
B) Bicameralism
C) Distribution of powers
D) Judicial Review

Q30: Statement I: France's motto inspired Preamble ideals.
Statement II: 'Republic' means hereditary monarchy.
Statement III: 'Integrity' added in 1976.
Which correct?
A) II and III only
B) I and III only
C) I and II only
D) All three

Q31: Which Article empowers Parliament to admit new States?
A) Article 1
B) Article 2
C) Article 3
D) Article 4

Q32: Match:
1. President – Article 52 – Executive Head
2. Vice-President – Article 63 – RS Chairman
3. Prime Minister – Article 75 – Cabinet maker
How many correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q33: Three statements:
1. 'Secular' in original Preamble
2. Article 4 covers schedule amendments
3. CA finished in <2 years
How many correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q34: Assertion (A): 'Union of States' implies federalism.
Reason (R): States have indestructible sovereignty.
A) Both true, R explains A
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q35: Statements:
I: Parliament legislates for UTs
II: Delhi UT from Punjab reorganisation
III: All UTs have LS seats
Which correct?
A) II and III
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) All three

Q36: Which country inspired India's amendment procedure?
A) USA
B) South Africa
C) Ireland
D) UK

Q37: Match:
1. Sovereignty – Preamble
2. Liberty – Article 21
3. Equality – Article 14
How many correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q38: Statement I: Article 9 prohibits dual citizenship
Statement II: Article 15 prohibits discrimination
Statement III: Article 10 covers post-1950 migrants
Which correct?
A) II only
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) I, II, III

Q39: Committee for women's reservation bill (2024):
A) Delimitation Commission
B) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Law
C) NITI Aayog Task Force
D) Election Commission

Q40: Assertion (A): Article 12's 'State' applies to FRs.
Reason (R): Same definition applies throughout Constitution.
A) Both true, R explains
B) Both true, R not explain
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q41: Statement I: Citizenship Act omits renunciation
Statement II: Amendments need simple majority
Statement III: Preamble enforceable
Correct?
A) None
B) Only I
C) II and III
D) Only II

Q42: Match:
1. 'India, that is Bharat' – Article 1
2. Admission of new States – Article 2
3. Altering boundaries – Article 3
How many correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Q43: Which Schedules were added by the 73rd and 74th Amendments?
A) 10 and 12
B) 11 and 12
C) 8 and 10
D) 9 and 11

Q44: Statement I: 'Secular' in original Preamble
Statement II: Article 6 migrants
Statement III: Only SC can interpret Preamble
Correct?
A) II only
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) All three

Q45: Landmark case on Preamble:
A) Berubari
B) Kesavananda Bharati
C) Golaknath
D) Minerva Mills

Q46: Article for changing state boundaries/names:
A) Article 2
B) Article 3
C) Article 7
D) Article 10

Q47: Assertion (A): Princely States joined via treaties.
Reason (R): Integration used agreements and force.
A) Both true, R explains
B) Both true, R not explain
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true

Q48: Statement I: All born in India are citizens
Statement II: Parliament can deprive citizenship
Statement III: OCIs have voting rights
Correct?
A) I and II
B) II only
C) I and III
D) II and III

Q49: Country inspiring Fundamental Duties:
A) USSR
B) UK
C) France
D) Japan

Q50: Statement I: 'Union of India' defined in Article 1
Statement II: Sikkim joined 1975
Statement III: Andaman & Nicobar have assembly
Correct?
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) All three